#14 | POSTED BY ET_AL
But, if you follow the statutory definition, then Trump committed bribery. He is a "public official" that "directly or indirectly" "corruptly demands" "[something] of value personally" for "being influenced in the performance of any official act".
The only thing I am unsure about is whether he falls under the definition of "public official" as this statute defines it, but it is clear that he is covered under the constitutional definition. So we can all agree that he is a "public official".
Did he corruptly demand something of value personally? Well, it pretty clear that he demanded the announcement of the investigation into the Bidens. Was that something he would "value personally"? I believe that we can all agree he "values" being re-elected personally. And that having a public announcement of Joe Biden being under investigation would contribute towards him being re-elected.
Did he "corruptly" demand it though? I don't actually know what the definition of "corruptly" in this context actually is, but it seems to me it is going to intent. If he were to "demand" something in the course of US policy that happened to benefit him personally (like they accuse Biden of, getting the prosecutor fired furthered US policy but, "supposedly", personally benefited Joe Biden's son) then that would not be "bribery" because he had a legitimate reason to demand it. But, if it was solely for personal gain, then it would be "corruptly" demanded.
Finally, I think we can all agree that giving Ukraine aid or scheduling a presidential visit are both "official acts".
I see where people could possibly argue that what Trump did was not "bribery", but it is a very big stretch considering the testimony that has come out.